I’m not addressing your overall point—but I am curious about your dating. Jerome was commissioned to create his Latin translation a year *after* the revision of the Nicean Creed which wasn’t written in Latin, but *Greek.*

So, how did a translation in Latin that hadn’t yet been written influence a *Greek* document?

(Note the amended Nicean Creed says “pantocrator”—Greek, not the Latin omnipotens.)